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Ancient Magic + Damage Lore


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Does this skills work well together, What I mean is if I use this skills on my melee SW does the Ancient Damage lowers the enemy armor and increases the Damage Lore total damage ?

 

No, Ancient Magic won't affect weapon-based CAs (there's a flag on each CA in the spells.txt - "causesSpellDamage = 1," means it's a "spell" & will be affected by Ancient Magic, "causesSpellDamage = 0," means it's weapon-based & won't be affected by Ancient Magic). Damage Lore only affects the elemental effects (burning from fire damage, poison DoT from poison damage, slow from ice damage & weaken from magic damage), it makes them more likely to happen & mastery increases the damage (fire & poison DoT only) & duration.

Ahhh. I was looking at that causesSpellDamage, and wondering whazzupwitdat... I thought of RpH and deathblow but hadn't realized about Damage Lore... and others probably I am forgetting as well.

 

So, generally speaking, a DoT is not spelldamage, so is never affected by Ancient Magic?

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Ahhh. I was looking at that causesSpellDamage, and wondering whazzupwitdat... I thought of RpH and deathblow but hadn't realized about Damage Lore... and others probably I am forgetting as well.

 

So, generally speaking, a DoT is not spelldamage, so is never affected by Ancient Magic?

 

Yes & no. The DoTs that are affected by Damage Lore are procced from the elemental damage done on the hit that proccs the DoT. If the source for that elemental damage is a "proper" spell (like Ancestral Fireball), then the spell is affected by Ancient Magic & so the DoT is indirectly affected (since the value of the DoT is a % of the elemental damage, the elemental damage is affected by Ancient Magic & resists, the DoT is then boosted by Damage Lore mastery).

 

If the source for the elemental damage is a weapon-based attack (eg, left-clicks, Pelting Strike, Archangel's Wrath, Ruthless Mutilation, Darting Assault, etc) then that isn't affected by Ancient Magic.

 

So, DoTs generally aren't affected by Ancient Magic, but the source of the DoT might be (if it's from a spell).

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Ahhh. I was looking at that causesSpellDamage, and wondering whazzupwitdat... I thought of RpH and deathblow but hadn't realized about Damage Lore... and others probably I am forgetting as well.

 

So, generally speaking, a DoT is not spelldamage, so is never affected by Ancient Magic?

 

Yes & no. The DoTs that are affected by Damage Lore are procced from the elemental damage done on the hit that proccs the DoT. If the source for that elemental damage is a "proper" spell (like Ancestral Fireball), then the spell is affected by Ancient Magic & so the DoT is indirectly affected (since the value of the DoT is a % of the elemental damage, the elemental damage is affected by Ancient Magic & resists, the DoT is then boosted by Damage Lore mastery).

 

If the source for the elemental damage is a weapon-based attack (eg, left-clicks, Pelting Strike, Archangel's Wrath, Ruthless Mutilation, Darting Assault, etc) then that isn't affected by Ancient Magic.

 

So, DoTs generally aren't affected by Ancient Magic, but the source of the DoT might be (if it's from a spell).

Ahhh. I think I mis-posted my question. So, I'll use an example or two. Assume the toon has Ancient Magic, but not damage lore, 'cause I am good on DL :)

 

#1)A "proper spell CA" causes fire damage, and the DoT is triggered. Assume the initial hit of the CA is for 100 fire damage.

#2)A "weapon-based CA" causes fire damage, and the DoT is triggered. Assume the initial hit is 100 fire damage again.

 

The DoT damage of #1 will be higher than the DoT damage of #2...OR both examples have the same DoT damage?

Edited by essjayehm
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Ahhh. I think I mis-posted my question. So, I'll use an example or two. Assume the toon has Ancient Magic, but not damage lore, 'cause I am good on DL :)

 

#1)A "proper spell CA" causes fire damage, and the DoT is triggered. Assume the initial hit of the CA is for 100 fire damage.

#2)A "weapon-based CA" causes fire damage, and the DoT is triggered. Assume the initial hit is 100 fire damage again.

 

The DoT damage of #1 will be higher than the DoT damage of #2...OR both examples have the same DoT damage?

 

The DoT will be the samesince the initial hit that proc's the DoT is the same in both examples. The DoT doesn't care what the source is, only how much fire/poison damage is done.

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Ahhh. I think I mis-posted my question. So, I'll use an example or two. Assume the toon has Ancient Magic, but not damage lore, 'cause I am good on DL :D

 

#1)A "proper spell CA" causes fire damage, and the DoT is triggered. Assume the initial hit of the CA is for 100 fire damage.

#2)A "weapon-based CA" causes fire damage, and the DoT is triggered. Assume the initial hit is 100 fire damage again.

 

The DoT damage of #1 will be higher than the DoT damage of #2...OR both examples have the same DoT damage?

 

The DoT will be the samesince the initial hit that proc's the DoT is the same in both examples. The DoT doesn't care what the source is, only how much fire/poison damage is done.

 

Cool. Thanks, Llama! I always wondered if Ancient Magic lowered the resists so that the DoT's would not be resisted as much, but it's only for the initial Combat Art that Ancient Magic affects the resistances.

Edited by essjayehm
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Cool. Thanks, Llama! I always wondered if Ancient Magic lowered the resists so that the DoT's would not be resisted as much, but it's only for the initial Combat Art that Ancient Magic affects the resistances.

 

That's an interesting question & I'd think that what you say is probably the case, since DoTs bypass resistances (though resistances are used to calculate the initial hit which is used to calculate the DoT).

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